Importance Of Serial Dilution In Serology Crp

1. Pro Zone Phenomenon
2. Importance Of Serial Dilution In Serology Crps

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Importance Of Serial Dilution In Serology Definition. Serial Dilutions A serial dilution is any dilution where the concentration decreases by the same quantity in each. By performing two- fold serial dilutions on the. Apply the dilution factor and dilute the original suspension of antigen in PBS. Allan and Gough, 1. Curren tly, serial dilution is a standard tool in the fields of toxicology and immunology. Serial dilution helps to choose a dilution which is relevant to our experiment. Often the standard which is given to you in the lab is far to strong for the experiment and it needs to be diluted. The dilution factor chosen for the series of calibration standards is achievable by using serial dilution. The progression of calibration standard concentration is always a geometric series. Consider the example of making the first standard at 1/3 the concentration of the known, the next calibrant would be 1/9th the concentration of the known.

Clinical LaboratoryTechnician, Basic Immunology and Serology Exam. Instructional Materials: Clinical Immunology and Serology, A laboratory Perspective, 3rd Ed. 2009 Christine Dorresteyn Steven, McGraw-Hill Course ID: CL 1110 National American University

Importance Of Serial Dilution In Serology Crps

• • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.

    There is a parasitic infection and not a viral infection.

• 1. Which is characteristic of natural immunity?

  • Memory is involved.

  • Lymphocytes play a major role.

  • It is very specific.

  • It depends on normally present body functions.

• What is the major function of C-reactive protein (CRP)?

  • Acts as an opsonin

  • Binds hemoglobin

  • Causes vasodilation

  • Helps to form clots

• Which of the following acute phase reactants is an important clotting factor?

  • Haptoglobin

  • Ceruloplasmin

  • Fibrinogen

  • Alpha-2 macroglobulin

• • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.
• 6.
  All of the following are characteristics of acute phase reactants EXCEPT:

  • Increase rapidly in response to infection

  • Used to diagnose a specific disease

  • Enhanced phagocytosis

  • Promote inflammation

• What is the function of the acute phase protein haptoglobin?

  • Acts as an opsonin

  • Forms clots

  • Binds hemoglobin

  • Acts as a chemotaxin

• Measurement of CRP levels could be useful for which of the following?

  • To determine risk of a heart attack

  • To determine flare up of rheumatoid arthritis

  • To detect an inflammatory process

  • All of the above

• Acquired immunity can be characterized by which of the following?

  • Nonspecific

  • Immediate response

  • Depends on neutrophils and macrophages

  • Involves memory

• Which of the following best explains the reaction that takes place in the latex agglutination slide test for CRP?

  • Latex particles are coated with anti-CRP

  • Latex particles are coated with CRP

  • Latex particles are nonspecifically bound

  • CRP is acting as an antibody

• The ability to resist infection through normally present body functions best characterizes:

  • Autoimmunity

  • Natural immunity

  • Acquired immunity

  • Alloimmunity

• Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the:

  • Bone marrow

  • Spleen

  • Lymph node

  • Peyer's patches

• When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self-antigen, which of the following processes can occur?

  • Class switch

  • Affinity maturation

  • Apoptosis

  • Differentiation

• The receptor for antigen on a mature B cell and first immunoglobulin to appear in immune response is:

  • MHC class I

  • IgG

  • IgM

  • MHC class II

• T lymphocytes undergo antigen-independent maturation in the:

  • Thymus

  • Bone marrow

  • Lymph node

  • Spleen

• An immature T cell differs from a mature T cell because an immature T cell:

  • Expresses beta chains and pre Ta

  • Does not express T-cell receptor or CD3

  • Co-expresses CD4 and CD8

  • Is normally found in lymph nodes

• • A.

    T-cell receptor on the effector cell binding to Fab of IgG bound to the target cell

  • C-type lectin inhibitory receptors on effector cell binding to class I on target cell

  • CD16 on the effector cell binding to Fc of IgG to the target cell

  • CD154 on the effector cell binding to CD40 on the target cell

• • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.
• 19.
  Which of the following is true of HLA (MHC) class I antigens?

  • They are recognized by helper T cells.

  • They are found on all nucleated cells

  • They combine with exogenous antigen

  • They are coded for on chromosome 9

• Heterophile antigens are characterized as:

  • Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody

  • One's own self-antigens

  • Any antigen used for immunization

  • All of the above

• HLA (MHC) class I protein is found on:

  • RBCs

  • All nucleated cells

  • B cells and macrophages

  • Stem cells only

• Which MHC class of antigens is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T-cells?

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition

• All of the following are characteristics of both MHC class I and class II molecules EXCEPT:

  • Expressed codominantly

  • Involved in antigen recognition

  • Members of the immunoglobulin superfamily

  • Expressed constitutively on all nucleated cells

• Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways?

  • C1

  • C2

  • Factor B

  • C3

• Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathways?

  • IgG

  • Mannose-Binding Lectin

  • C3b

  • C1q

• Chemotactic and analyphylatic factors are produced by proteolytic cleavage of:

  • C1q, C1r, C1s

  • C4, C2

  • C5, C3

  • C5, C6, C7, C8

• The target recognition molecule of the lectin pathway that initiates complement activation is:

  • C1q

  • C4

  • C5b6789

  • Mannose-Binding Lectin

• Which immunolglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic complement pathway?

  • IgA and IgD

  • IgM only

  • IgG and IgM

  • IgG only

• Which of the following is able to activate complement?

  • IgA

  • IgD

  • IgE

  • IgM

• On a serial dilution with the following tubes set up, 1:2, 1:4, 1:8, 1:16, 1:32, and 1:64, there is no visible agglutination in the 1:64 tube. What is the titer of the antibody?

  • 32

  • 16

  • 64

  • Cannot determine

• If you want to make 5 mL of a 1:20 dilution, how much serum would be needed?

  • 0.25 mL

  • 2 mL

  • 0.5 mL

  • 1 mL

• When a staphylococcal infection is passed between patients due to health-care workers not washing their hands, this represents an example of:

  • Lack of chemical hygiene

  • A sharps hazard

  • The chain of infection

  • A specimen transport problem

• When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent, what dilution does this represent?

  • 1:3

  • 1:4

  • 1:5

  • 3:1

• Which of the following best explains the use of universal precautions?

  • Handling a urine specimen from a patient with a bacterial infection very carefully

  • Wearing gloves in handling a serum specimen from a patient with HIV

  • Taking gloves off in the lab to place a serum specimen in a chemistry analyzer

  • Treating every specimen in the lab as if it were infectious

• An immunlolgic immunoassay situation in which antibody is in excess as compared to antigen is called:

  • Postzone

  • Prozone

  • Equivalence zone

  • Zone of equivalence

• A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen and antibody are both soluble and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay was described?

  • Precipitation

  • Agglutination

  • Flocculation

  • Neutralization

• The zone at which antibody and antigen are at optimal concentration so that they form a large insoluble lattice together is called the:

  • Equivalence zone

  • Postzone

  • Prozone

  • Prezone

• A situation in which antigen is in excess as compared to antibody is called:

  • Prozone

  • Postzone

  • Equivalence zone

  • All of the above

• • A.

    Bone marrow to the cortex, after thymic education, released back to peripheral circulation

  • Storage in either the cortex or medulla, release of T cells into the peripheral circulation

  • Maturation and selection occur in the cortex, then the medulla, release of mature T cells to secondary lymphoid organs

  • Activation and selection occur in the medulla, mature T cells stored in the cortex until activated by antigen

• Which of the following might adversely affect an electrophoresis reaction?

  • Decreasing the strength of the current

  • Changing the pH of the buffer

  • Increasing the strength of the current

  • All of the above

• The Western blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of which of the following?

  • Immunofixation

  • Immunoelectrophoresis

  • Double diffusion

  • Passive agglutination

• Electrophoresis followed by diffusion of antibody from wells cut in the gel best describes which of the following?

  • Immunofixation electrophoresis

  • Immunoelectrophoresis

  • Oucherlony diffusion

  • Rocket immunodiffusion

• Precipitation reactions involve combination of soluble antibody with:

  • Soluble antigen

  • Cellular antigens

  • Red blood cells

  • Radioactive antigen

• • A.
  • B.

    To enhance agglutination with IgG coated red blood cells

  • To enhance agglutination with IgM coated red blood cells

  • To cause a precipitation reaction with small amounts of antibody

• • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.
• 46.
  An immunoassay was performed in the following way: Antigen is bound to a solid support. Patient serum is added and patient antibodies bind to the antigen. The well is washed and enzyme-labeled anti-immunoglobulin antibodies are added. The well is washed and enzyme substrate is added and enzyme activity is determined. Which immnoassay is described?

  • Sandwich

  • Competitive

  • ELISA

  • Homogeneous

• Indirect immunofluorescence is similar to which type of enzyme immunoassay as far as the performance of the assay?

  • Competitive

  • Sandwich

  • ELISA

  • Homogeneous

• A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a larger carrier, the antibody is soluble, and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described?

  • Precipitation

  • Agglutination

  • Flocculation

  • Neutralization

• A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against that exogenous antigen is called:

  • Latex agglutination

  • Hemagglutination

  • Neutralization

  • Complement fixation

• If a Coombs' test is positive, which of the following is true?

  • Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vitro

  • Antigen is reacting with patient antibody

  • Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vivo

  • Antigen has coated patient red blood cells in vivo

• Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?

  • A limited number of binding sites are present

  • Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected

  • All patient antigen present is allowed to bind

  • Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts

• In a indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as the FTA confirmatory test for syphilis, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

  • A labeled antigen is used

  • Washing is an important step

  • Patient antibody is detected

  • Antihuman globulin has a fluorescent tag

• The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the flow cytometer by which of the following?

  • Chemiluminescence

  • Fluorescence

  • Optical density

  • Radioactivity

• Reaction to poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity?

  • I

  • II

  • III

  • IV

• Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity?

  • IgE

  • IgA

  • IgG

  • IgM

• The principle difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions is the:

  • Isotype of antibody involved

  • Complement-mediated lysis of host cells

  • Whether the antigen is cellular or soluble

  • Involvement of helper T cells and macrophages

• The normal activity of a type I hypersensitivity response is protection primarily against which of the following?

  • Parasites

  • Viruses

  • Bacteria

  • Fungi

• In the slide agglutination for lupus, which of the following is detected?

  • Anti-DNP

  • Anti-IgG

  • Anti-RNA

  • Anti-HCG

• An autoimmune disease characterized by pain and progressive destruction of the joints, weight loss, morning stiffness, and presence of an antibody directed against IgG best describes:

  • Rheumatoid arthritis

  • Lupus

  • Hemolytic disease of the newborn

  • Hemolytic anemia

• Reasons for autoimmunity may include all of the following EXCEPT:

  • Inheritance of certain HLA antigens

  • Molecular mimicry

  • Polycolonal B cell activation

  • Normal antibody production